Life Science: Biology — Final exam
Parent / teacher answer keyAn independent assessment of the core chapters listed below, followed by corrections and discussion.
56 questions · 88 points · suggested 180 minutes
Student instructions
- Suggested time: 120 minutes; allow breaks or accommodations and record them.
- Work independently with a calculator, blank paper and the reference relationships printed in this paper. Grades 9, 11 and 12 may also use the course-linked NYSED reference tables. Use no lesson notes or answer key during an assessed attempt.
- Show reasoning and units for written tasks. All supplied datasets are illustrative; do not present them as measurements you collected.
- Objective items: 1 point each. Written items: 3 points each, one per criterion. A parent or teacher marks the written work; the app never grades an explanation automatically.
- Sample exam: try the whole paper before opening the worked key, then revisit the linked chapters. The sample and final are different papers; this is a course assessment, not an official Regents examination.
Reference relationships
| Relationship or tool | Conditions |
|---|---|
| Cell geometry | Cube area=6L², volume=L³, area/volume=6/L. A geometry model simplifies actual shapes. |
| Genetic probabilities | Specify genotypes and the inheritance model. Each offspring is a probability event; ratios are not guaranteed small-family counts. |
| Population accounting | New population=old+births+immigration−deaths−emigration. |
| Energy transfer | Next-level production=available production×the supplied efficiency, not a universal fixed 10%. |
| Molecular pathways | Replication copies DNA; transcription makes RNA; translation makes polypeptide. Track matter and energy separately. |
Coverage and marks
| Chapter | Questions | Points |
|---|---|---|
| Investigating the Chemistry of Life | 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 | 11 |
| Cells, Membranes & Exchange | 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14 | 11 |
| Body Systems, Signals & Homeostasis | 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21 | 11 |
| Matter & Energy in Living Systems | 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27, 28 | 11 |
| Cell Division, Reproduction & Development | 29, 30, 31, 32, 33, 34, 35 | 11 |
| DNA, Inheritance & Gene Expression | 36, 37, 38, 39, 40, 41, 42 | 11 |
| Evolution, Ancestry & Biodiversity | 43, 44, 45, 46, 47, 48, 49 | 11 |
| Ecosystems & Conservation Decisions | 50, 51, 52, 53, 54, 55, 56 | 11 |
Name: ____________________ Date: ____________________
Question 1 · 1 point
Three independent rates are 4, 6, and 8 units/min. Find the mean.
Question 2 · 1 point
Water's ability to dissolve salts depends on its
- nonpolar tails
- polarity and partial charges
- high density
- lack of hydrogen bonds
Question 3 · 1 point
Which pairing of macromolecule and monomer is correct?
- Protein — nucleotide
- Nucleic acid — amino acid
- Carbohydrate — monosaccharide
- Lipid — glucose
Question 4 · 1 point
An enzyme speeds a reaction by
- raising the temperature
- lowering the activation energy
- making a reaction spontaneous
- being consumed
Question 5 · 1 point
Breaking a chemical bond, considered alone,
- always releases energy
- always requires energy
- never involves energy
- creates mass
Question 6 · 3 points
An enzyme study varies temperature but also changes enzyme quantity between groups. Explain the confound and redesign using independent replicates.
Question 7 · 3 points
Explain how ATP hydrolysis can support cell work without claiming that breaking a bond alone releases energy.
Question 8 · 1 point
Which statement is NOT one of the three tenets of cell theory?
- All living things are made of one or more cells
- The cell is the basic unit of structure and function
- All cells arise from pre-existing cells
- All cells contain a nucleus
Question 9 · 1 point
Which statement is part of the cell theory?
- All cells have a nucleus
- Cells come only from pre-existing cells
- All cells are the same size
- Cells form spontaneously
Question 10 · 1 point
Which crosses the phospholipid bilayer most readily without a transport protein?
- A sodium ion
- Glucose
- Oxygen
- A protein
Question 11 · 1 point
An animal cell placed in distilled water will
- shrivel
- swell and may burst
- stay the same
- become turgid safely
Question 12 · 1 point
As a cell grows larger, its surface-area-to-volume ratio
- increases
- decreases
- stays constant
- doubles
Question 13 · 3 points
For cube-shaped model cells with sides 1 and 3 units, compare surface-area/volume ratios and explain an exchange consequence.
Question 14 · 3 points
A cell enters an equal-pressure solution with higher impermeant solute concentration. Predict initial water flow and distinguish passive from active transport.
Question 15 · 1 point
Which process happens in lung exchange surfaces?
- Gas moves between air and blood
- Food is chewed
- All ATP is made
- DNA is replicated for every tissue
Question 16 · 1 point
In a negative feedback loop the effector's response
- amplifies the change
- opposes the change
- removes the receptor
- has no effect
Question 17 · 1 point
Oxygen reaches a muscle cell through the combined action of the
- digestive and excretory systems
- respiratory and circulatory systems
- nervous system alone
- skeletal system
Question 18 · 1 point
A hormone reaches every tissue but only some respond because responding cells have
- more blood supply
- the matching receptor
- thicker membranes
- no nucleus
Question 19 · 1 point
A second exposure to the same antigen produces a faster, larger response because of
- barriers
- memory lymphocytes
- fever alone
- inflammation alone
Question 20 · 3 points
Trace oxygen from air to a muscle cell and explain how exercise illustrates system cooperation.
Question 21 · 3 points
Body temperature rises, triggering sweating. Name the feedback type and explain why a hormone cannot directly trigger its usual response in a cell lacking its receptor.
Question 22 · 1 point
ATP is best described as
- the organelle where respiration happens
- the cell's main energy currency
- the molecule that stores genetic information
- a green pigment that absorbs light
Question 23 · 1 point
In an ecosystem, energy
- cycles like matter
- flows through and is lost as heat
- is created by producers
- is destroyed by consumers
Question 24 · 1 point
The oxygen released by photosynthesis comes from
- carbon dioxide
- water
- glucose
- chlorophyll
Question 25 · 1 point
Oxygen's role in aerobic respiration is to
- break glucose apart
- accept electrons at the end of the transport chain
- produce carbon dioxide directly
- supply carbon
Question 26 · 1 point
A plant kept in continuous darkness loses mass because it
- stops respiring
- respires without photosynthesising
- loses chloroplasts
- absorbs no water
Question 27 · 3 points
A plant gains organic carbon while producing oxygen in light. Identify the sources of that carbon and released oxygen, then explain why the plant still respires.
Question 28 · 3 points
A plant's measured net oxygen output is 8 units/hour and respiration consumes 3 units/hour in the supplied model. Find gross oxygen production and state a condition limiting the calculation.
Question 29 · 1 point
In the standard model without new copying errors, what is the main result of mitosis followed by cytokinesis?
- Two genetically identical daughter cells
- Four sex cells with half the DNA
- A cell with double the normal chromosome number
- A finished protein
Question 30 · 1 point
DNA is replicated during
- prophase
- the S phase of interphase
- anaphase
- cytokinesis
Question 31 · 1 point
Meiosis I differs from mitosis because in meiosis I
- chromosomes do not replicate
- homologous pairs separate
- no cytokinesis occurs
- chromosome number doubles
Question 32 · 1 point
A muscle cell and a nerve cell in one person differ mainly in
- which genes they carry
- which genes they express
- their number of chromosomes
- their DNA sequence
Question 33 · 1 point
During cleavage, cell number rises while total embryo size changes little because
- cells shrink as cytoplasm is divided
- new material is added
- cells fuse
- mass is lost
Question 34 · 3 points
A species has diploid number 20. Give normal chromosome counts after mitosis, in gametes and after fertilization, and distinguish homologs from sister chromatids.
Question 35 · 3 points
Explain why a neuron and muscle cell can function differently with largely the same genome; distinguish differentiation from division.
Question 36 · 1 point
In DNA, the base adenine (A) always pairs with
- thymine (T)
- cytosine (C)
- guanine (G)
- another adenine (A)
Question 37 · 1 point
A DNA sample is 22 percent cytosine. The percentage of adenine is
- 22
- 28
- 44
- 56
Question 38 · 1 point
Deleting a single base from a coding sequence is usually more damaging than substituting one because it
- removes the gene
- shifts the reading frame downstream
- stops replication
- changes the chromosome number
Question 39 · 1 point
Two parents showing a dominant phenotype have a child with the recessive phenotype. The parents are
- both homozygous dominant
- both heterozygous
- both homozygous recessive
- one of each homozygote
Question 40 · 1 point
A mother is blood type O and a father type AB. A possible child blood type is
- O
- AB
- A
- none of these
Question 41 · 3 points
In a hypothetical complete-dominance model, cross Aa with aa. Give genotype and phenotype probabilities and explain why four offspring need not match the ratio.
Question 42 · 3 points
A hormone changes transcription without changing DNA sequence. Explain whether this is a mutation and why a skin-cell mutation is not automatically inherited by offspring.
Question 43 · 1 point
What is the ultimate source of the new heritable variation that natural selection acts upon?
- An organism's conscious effort to change
- The environment directly rewriting an organism's genes as needed
- Mutation (with reshuffling of genes in sexual reproduction)
- Traits organisms build up through exercise and practice
Question 44 · 1 point
Natural selection acts on
- variation produced in response to need
- heritable variation already present
- acquired characteristics
- individual effort
Question 45 · 1 point
A bird's wing and an insect's wing are similar in function but differ in structure and ancestry. They are
- homologous
- analogous
- vestigial
- identical
Question 46 · 1 point
Genetic drift has its largest effect in populations that are
- very large
- small
- growing
- migrating
Question 47 · 1 point
On a cladogram, two groups are most closely related if they
- are drawn closest together
- share the most recent common ancestor
- are furthest right
- have the most derived characters
Question 48 · 3 points
A random flood leaves ten survivors regardless of their alleles. Frequencies differ from the original population. Identify a mechanism and compare with selection.
Question 49 · 3 points
A tree groups A and B at a recent node and joins C at an older node. Identify the closest pair and explain why rotating branches does not change the result.
Question 50 · 1 point
All the members of a single species living and interbreeding in the same area make up a
- community
- biome
- trophic level
- population
Question 51 · 1 point
Competition for food within a population is a
- density-independent factor
- density-dependent factor
- abiotic factor only
- non-limiting factor
Question 52 · 1 point
Food chains are usually short because at each transfer
- species run out
- about ninety percent of the energy is not passed on
- matter is destroyed
- predators disappear
Question 53 · 1 point
Decomposers are essential because they
- add energy to the ecosystem
- return elements to inorganic forms producers can reuse
- occupy the first trophic level
- prevent energy loss
Question 54 · 1 point
Resistance and resilience differ because resilience describes
- how little a community changes
- how fully and quickly it recovers
- its species richness
- its total biomass
Question 55 · 3 points
A population starts at 500, has 60 births, 40 deaths, 15 immigrants and 25 emigrants. Calculate final size; explain why carrying capacity can change.
Question 56 · 3 points
A conservation survey finds 20 species at site A in 5 h and 12 at B in 1 h. Explain the comparison's limitation, propose a fairer survey and identify an outcome to monitor after an intervention.